2016.05_CAL_ATPL

How many of the following terms and definitions (a) to (d) stipulated in Article 2 (Definition) of the Civil
Aeronautics Act are correct? Choose from (1) to (4) below.

(a)  The term “approach surface” means an area abutting on the shorter side of a landing area and sloping
upwards at a gradient of more than 1/50th from the horizontal plane, as specified by Ordinances of the
Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, the projection of which corresponds to the
approach area.

(b)  The term “air traffic control area” means any airspace, 200 meters or more above the land or water,
and designated in the public notice by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism for
the safety of air traffic.

(c)  The term “international air transport services” means any air transport services operating between one
point in the country and another in a foreign country, or between one point and another in foreign
countries.

(d)  The term “instrument flight” means a flight which is performed relying solely on flight instruments to
measure the attitude, altitude, position, and course of the aircraft.

Which of the following items is not included in the items to be described in a Flight Manual stipulated in
Article 5-4 (Flight Manual) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act?

Which of the following validity periods of aviation medical certification is correct for an airline transport pilot
who operates an aircraft for air transport services to transport passengers (except when renewing the
certification)?

How many of the following statements (a) to (d) regarding the Aviation English Proficiency Certification are
correct? Choose from (1) to (4) below.

(a)  A pilot who engages in a flight conducted between a point within Japan and a point outside of Japan
needs to have an Aviation English Proficiency Certification.

(b)  A pilot who engages in a flight that leaves Japan and arrives in Japan, passing over a country or its
territories other than Japan without landing, does not need to have an Aviation English Proficiency
Certification.

(c)  The categories of aircraft which require their pilot to hold an Aviation English Proficiency Certification
are aeroplanes and rotorcraft.

(d)  The validity period of the Aviation English Proficiency Certification is 2 years.

The following is a part of the provisions of Article 179 (Speed limitation in air traffic control zone, etc.) of the
Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act. Which one of the underlined values (1) to (4) is
incorrect?

(i) In the case of aircraft navigating in an air space prescribed under item (i) of Article 82-2 (Air traffic
control zone, etc.) of the Act and concurrently in the air space at an altitude of (1) 900 m or less, the
indicated air speed listed for each of the classifications of aircraft specified below:
(a) Aircraft equipped with reciprocating engines: (2) 160 knots
(b) Aircraft equipped with turbine engines: (3) 210 knots

(ii) In the case of aircraft navigating in an air space prescribed under item (i) of Article 82-2 (Air traffic
control zone, etc.) of the Act and concurrently in the air space at an altitude exceeding (1) 900 m, or
aircraft navigating in an air space designated in the public notice by the Minister of Land,
Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, which is in the approach control area and adjoins an air traffic
control zone, the indicated air speed of (4) 250 knots.

The following are provisions of Article 149 (Devices for Recording Aircraft Operations) of the Ordinance for
Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act. Which one is correct?

Which of the following correctly describes the requirements regarding the daytime obstacle markings?

Which of the “correct” and “incorrect” combinations below applies to the four items (a) to (d), which are the
documents to be carried by an aircraft for air transport service?

(a)  Onboard flight logbook

(b)  Document specifying operating limitation

(c)  Aeronautical charts appropriate for flight sectors, flight method, and other particular aspects of flight
operations

(d)  Operation manual

The following statements (a) to (d) describe those aircraft that shall be boarded by an airman who can
perform the pilotage of the aircraft other than the pilot-in-command as stipulated by Article 65 (Aircrew to be
on board aircraft) of the Civil Aeronautics Act. How many of these statements are correct? Choose from (1)
to (4) below.

(a)  Aircraft, because of its structure, which needs two persons for pilotage of aircraft

(b)  Aircraft which needs two persons for pilotage only for the purpose of a flight according to the special
methods and rules, and which engages in a flight according to the special methods and rules

(c)  Aircraft which is used for air transport of passengers and which engages in a flight under instrument
flight rules

(d)  Aircraft which is used for air transport of passengers and which engages in a flight, the duration of
which exceeds 5 hours

Which of the following statements regarding the recent flight experience of a pilot engaged in operating
aircraft used for air transport services is correct?

How many of the following items (a) to (d) are the items of knowledge and skills required for pilot in
command under Article 72 (Requirements of pilot in command on board an aircraft used for air transport
services) of the Act? Choose from (1) to (4) below.

(a)  Pre-take-off checks related to the operation of aircraft
(b)  Dispatcher’s approval of aircraft departure and changes to flight plan.
(c) Supervision of flight crew-members and cabin crew-members
(d) Aircraft maneuvers and measures in normal and non-normal conditions

Which of the following statements regarding the obligation, authority, etc. of the pilot-in-command is
incorrect?

How many of the following events (a) to (d) fall under the stipulation in Article 166-2 (Report on abnormality)
of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act? Choose from (1) to (4) below.

(a)  Failure in functions of airport, etc. and air navigation facilities

(b)  Turbulence of air and other abnormal weather conditions

(c)  Volcanic explosion and other violent changes in terrestrial and water-related phenomena

(d)  Cases impeding the safe flight of aircraft

How many of the following events (a) to (d) fall under the stipulation in Article 166-4 (Report on a case likely
to cause an accident) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act? Choose from (1) to (4)
below.

(a)  Landing or an attempt to land on a closed runway or a runway being used by other aircraft

(b)  Case where aircraft crew executed an emergency operation during navigation in order to avoid
crashing into or contact with the ground or water

(c)  Shortage of fuel requiring urgent measures

(d)  Case where aircraft crew became unable to perform services normally due to injury or disease

Which of the following statements regarding the method of navigation in the vicinity of an airport, etc. is
incorrect?

Which of the following provisions of Article 191-4 (The standards for the permit for air navigation under
particular flight rules) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act is incorrect?

How many of the following items (a) to (d) fall under the stipulation in Article 194 (Articles prohibited from
being transported) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act? Choose from (1) to (4)
below.

(a)  Toxic substances

(b)  Pressurized gas

(c)  Oxidizing substances

(d)  Articles with sufficient capability to kill or injure humans

Which of the following cruising altitudes for an RVSM-approved aircraft flying under IFR is incorrect in the
light of Article 177 (Cruising altitude) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act?

The following are provisions of Article 188 (Movement on ground) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the
Civil Aeronautics Act. Which one is incorrect?

Which of the following items need not be stated in the Operation Manual?