2018. 7 CAL_PPL

Question 1 of 20

1. Question

1 point(s)

Which of the following definitions in Article 2 (Definition) of the Civil Aeronautics Act is
incorrect?

The term “landing area” means a rectangular area of an airport or aerodrome which is provided for the takeoff or landing of aircraft in a specific direction.
The term “air traffic control area” means any airspace, 200 meters or more above the land or water surface, designated for the safety of air traffic in a public notice by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.
The term “domestic scheduled air transport services” means any air transport services operating between a point in Japan and a point in a foreign country, or between one point and another point in a foreign country.
The term “air transport services” means any business using aircraft to transport passengers or cargo for remuneration, upon demand.

Question 2 of 20

2. Question

1 point(s)

Which of the following statements regarding airworthiness certification is incorrect?

No aircraft may be granted airworthiness certification unless it has Japanese nationality; provided, however, that the same shall not apply to any aircraft as specified by Cabinet Order.
Airworthiness certification shall describe the category of aircraft and the aircraft operating methods as prescribed by Ordinances of the Ministry of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.
No person may operate an aircraft unless it has a valid airworthiness certificate; provided, however, that the same shall not apply if permission to perform test flights etc. has been granted by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.
The period of validity of an airworthiness certificate shall be one year; provided, however, that the period of validity of such an airworthiness certificate with regard to aircraft used for air transport services shall be the period specified by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism.

Question 3 of 20

3. Question

1 point(s)

Which of the following statements regarding the validity periods of aviation medical
certification for an airline transport pilot who operates an aircraft for air transport services
to transport passengers is correct?

In the case that flight operation is performed by two pilots and the age of the pilots is under 60 at the date of issuance: 1 year
In the case that flight operation is performed by two pilots and the age of the pilots is 40 or over at the date of issuance: 9 months
In the case that flight operation is performed by two pilots and the age of the pilots is under 40 at the date of issuance: 2 years
In the case that the flight operation is performed by two pilots and the age of the pilots is 60 or over at the date of issuance: 9 months

Question 4 of 20

4. Question

1 point(s)

How many of the following statements (a) to (d) are correct regarding the Aviation English
Proficiency Certification? Choose from (1) to (4) below.

(a) A pilot who engages in a flight conducted between a point within Japan and a point outside of Japan needs to have Aviation English Proficiency Certification.

(b) A pilot who engages in a flight that leaves Japan and arrives in Japan, passing over a country or its territories other than Japan without landing, does not need to have Aviation English Proficiency Certification.

(c) The categories of aircraft which require their pilot to hold Aviation English Proficiency Certification are airplanes, rotorcrafts, and airships.

(d) The Aviation English Proficiency Certification is valid for 2 years.

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Question 5 of 20

5. Question

1 point(s)

Which of the underlined portions (1) to (4) in the provisions of Article 179 (Speed limitation
in air traffic control zones, etc.) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics
Act is incorrect?

1 In the case of an aircraft navigating in an air space prescribed under Item (i) of
Article 82-2 (Air traffic control zones, etc.) of the Act and concurrently in the air space
at an altitude of (1) 900 meters or less, the indicated air speed listed for each
classification of aircraft specified below:

a Aircraft equipped with reciprocating engines: (2) 170 knots
b Aircraft equipped with turbine engines: (3) 200 knots

2 In the case of an aircraft navigating in an air space prescribed under Item (i) of
Article 82-2 (Air traffic control zones, etc.) of the Act and concurrently in the air space
at an altitude exceeding (1) 900 meters, or aircraft navigating in an air space
designated in the public notice by the Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and
Tourism, which is in the approach control area and adjoins an air traffic control zone,
the indicated air speed of:

(4) 250 knots

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Question 6 of 20

6. Question

1 point(s)

The following are provisions of Article 149 (Devices for Recording Aircraft Operations) of
the Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act. Which one is correct?

The flight data recorder shall be operated continuously over the period from the commencement of the take-off run to the completion of the landing run.
The flight data recorder shall be operated continuously over the period from the commencement of engine operation for the purpose of flight to the cessation of engine operation after finishing the flight.
The cockpit voice recorder shall be operated continuously over the period from the commencement of the take-off run to the completion of the landing run.
The cockpit voice recorder shall be operated continuously over the period from the commencement of engine operation for the purpose of flight to the completion of the landing run.

Question 7 of 20

7. Question

1 point(s)

The following are visual meteorological conditions applicable to aircraft flying at an altitude
of 3,000 meters or higher. Which one is incorrect?

Flight visibility is 8,000 meters or more.
No cloud is within the vertical distance of 150 meters above the aircraft.
No cloud is within the vertical distance of 300 meters below the aircraft.
No cloud is within the horizontal distance of 1,500 meters from the aircraft.

Question 8 of 20

8. Question

1 point(s)

Are the following items (a) to (d) either correct or incorrect as mandatory documents to be
carried by aircraft for air transport service? Select the correct combination from options (1) to (4).

(a) Airworthiness certificate

(b) Onboard flight logbook

(c) Documents specifying operating limitation

(d) Aeronautical charts appropriate for the flight sectors, flight method, and other particular aspects of flight operations

(a)Correct (b)Incorrect (c)Correct (d)Correct
(a)Correct (b)Correct (c)Correct (d)Correct
(a)Correct (b)Correct (c)Inorrect (d)Correct
(a)Correct (b)Correct (c)Correct (d)Incorrect

Question 9 of 20

9. Question

1 point(s)

The following statements (a) to (d) describe the aircraft that must have an airman who can
maneuver the aircraft on board other than the pilot-in-command as stipulated by Article 65
(Aircrew to be on board aircraft) of the Civil Aeronautics Act. How many of these
statements are correct? Choose from (1) to (4) below.

(a) Aircraft, because of its structure, which needs two persons for pilotage of the aircraft

(b) Aircraft which needs two persons for pilotage only for the purpose of a flight according to the special methods and rules, and which engages in flights according to the special methods and rules

(c) Aircraft which is used for air transport of passengers and which engages in flights under instrument flight rules

(d) Aircraft which is used for air transport of passengers and which engages in flights, the duration of which exceeds 6 hours

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Question 10 of 20

10. Question

1 point(s)

Which of the following statements regarding the recent flight experience of a pilot
engaged in operating aircraft used for air transport services is correct?

A pilot engaged in operating aircraft used for air transport services must have experience of at least six night-time take-offs and six night-time landings respectively in aircraft of the same type used for air transport services, within the 180 days prior to the day on which the pilot is carrying out pilot duties.
Flight crew-members carrying out instrument flight shall have instrument flight experience (including simulator flight) of 5 hours or longer within the 180 days prior to the day of the flight.
Flight crew-members carrying out instrument flight shall have instrument flight experience (including simulator flight) of 3 hours or longer within the 90 days prior to the day of the flight.
A pilot engaged in operating aircraft used for air transport services must have experience of at least three takeoffs and three landings respectively in aircraft of the same type used for air transport services, within the 90 days prior to the day on which the pilot is carrying out pilot duties.

Question 11 of 20

11. Question

1 point(s)

How many of the following items (a) to (d) are knowledge and skills a pilot-in-command
should possess pursuant to Article 72 (Requirements of pilot-in-command on board an
aircraft used for air transport services) of the Civil Aeronautics Act? Choose from (1) to (4) below.

(a) Pre-take-off checks related to the operation of aircraft

(b) Dispatcher’s approval of aircraft departure and changes to flight plan

(c) Supervision of flight crew-members and cabin crew-members

(d) Safety management of aircraft operations including measures to deter safetythreatening behavior etc. and crisis measures

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Question 12 of 20

12. Question

1 point(s)

Which of the following statements regarding the obligations, authority, etc. of the pilot-incommand is incorrect?

The pilot-in-command may, when a dangerous situation occurs or he/she deems that a dangerous situation is likely to occur to the aircraft or passengers, orders the passengers on board regarding procedures for evacuation or other matters necessary for safety.
The pilot-in-command may restrain any person who threatens aircraft safety, irrespective of whether the person is on board or not.
The pilot-in-command shall, when an emergent danger occurs to the aircraft during flight, employ every possible means necessary for rescuing passengers and preventing injury or damage to persons or objects on land or water.
The pilot-in-command shall direct and supervise those who perform their duties on board the aircraft.

Question 13 of 20

13. Question

1 point(s)

How many of the following events (a) to (d) fall under the stipulation in Article 166-2
(Report on abnormal circumstances) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil
Aeronautics Act? Choose from (1) to (4) below.

(a) Failure in functions of airports, etc. and air navigation facilities

(b) Turbulence of air and other abnormal weather conditions

(c) Volcanic explosions and other violent changes in terrestrial or water-related phenomena

(d) Cases impeding the safe flight of aircraft

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Question 14 of 20

14. Question

1 point(s)

How many of the following events (a) to (d) fall under the stipulation in Article 166-4
(Report on a case likely to cause an accident) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the
Civil Aeronautics Act? Choose from (1) to (4) below.

(a) Landing on or attempting to land on a closed runway or a runway being used by other aircraft

(b) A case where aircraft crew executed an emergency operation during navigation in order to avoid crashing into or coming into contact with the ground or water surface

(c) Shortage of fuel requiring urgent measures

(d) A case where parts which dropped from aircraft collided with one or more persons

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Question 15 of 20

15. Question

1 point(s)

Which of the following statements regarding the method of navigation in the vicinity of an
airport, etc. is incorrect?

An aircraft under instrument flight rules shall not take off when the meteorological conditions at the airport, etc. do not meet the minimum conditions for take-off.
In the case that the meteorological conditions do not meet the minimum conditions for continuing the landing approach at the airport, etc. when an aircraft passes a specific location above the approach height threshold, the landing approach may be continued to the approach height threshold, when instrument flight rules are being used for landing.
The landing approach shall not be continued when instrument flight rules are being used for landing and the position of an aircraft cannot be confirmed by means of continuous visual contact and recognition of visual references at the approach height threshold or lower altitude.
An aircraft shall follow the approach procedure based on the instrument flight rules and the flight procedure established for the relevant airport, etc.

Question 16 of 20

16. Question

1 point(s)

Which of the following items is not included in the items to be stated in the flight plan
under the provisions of Article 203 (Flight plans, etc.) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of
the Civil Aeronautics Act?

Point of departure and scheduled take off time
Cruising altitude and route
True airspeed at cruising altitude
First place of landing, and the time required from take-off to arriving overhead the applicable place of landing

Question 17 of 20

17. Question

1 point(s)

How many of the following items (a) to (d) fall under the stipulation in Article 194 (Articles
prohibited from being transported) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil
Aeronautics Act? Choose from (1) to (4) below.

(a) Toxic substances

(b) High-pressure gas

(c) Oxidizing substances

(d) Articles with sufficient capability to kill or injure humans

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Question 18 of 20

18. Question

1 point(s)

Which of the altitudes indicated in the following statements is incorrect pursuant to Article
177 (Cruising altitude) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act?
Note, however, that this excludes the cases of complying with the instructions given by the
Minister of Land, Infrastructure, Transport and Tourism, as stipulated in Article 96-1 of the
Civil Aeronautics Act.

Aircraft flying by instrumental flying rules in a flight direction with a magnetic bearing of 0° or more to less than 180°: 41,000 ft
Aircraft flying by instrumental flying rules in a flight direction with a magnetic bearing of 180° or more to less than 360°: 42,000 ft
Aircraft flying by instrumental flying rules in a flight direction with a magnetic bearing of 0° or more to less than 180°: 45,000 ft
Aircraft flying by instrumental flying rules in the flight direction with a magnetic bearing of 180° or more to less than 360°: 43,000 ft

Question 19 of 20

19. Question

1 point(s)

Which of the following points is incorrect as a description of Article 188 (Movement on
ground) of the Ordinance for Enforcement of the Civil Aeronautics Act?

The power system shall be controlled or the braking system shall be lightly used to maintain speed that may be quickly and safely stopped.
The forward view shall be thoroughly observed.
The speed shall not exceed the speed limit specified for the area.
When there is a danger of collision with aircraft or other objects, a ground guide shall be provided.

Question 20 of 20

20. Question

1 point(s)

Which of the following items need not be stated in the Operation Manual?

Procedures for giving experience and knowledge necessary for flight operation to the flight crew
Operational procedures and performance limitations of aircraf
Standards for aircraft performance limitations in cases where components, parts, and emergency equipments are not used under normal circumstances.
Maximum hours of use for equipment, etc.

Civil Aeronautics Law

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2018. 7 CAL_PPL

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